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RE: LeoThread 2025-03-30 15:52

in LeoFinance12 days ago

Part 3/6:

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\log n}{n} \rightarrow \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{d}{dn}(\log n)}{\frac{d}{dn}(n)} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{n}}{1}

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This leads to:

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\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} = 0

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Thus, it's confirmed that ( \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\log n}{n} = 0 ).

Convergence of Alternating Sequences

Consider the sequence defined by ( a_n = (-1)^n ). As ( n ) alternates between even and odd, the sequence oscillates between 1 and -1. Graphically, this can be represented as points alternating above and below the x-axis, clearly indicating no approach towards a unique limit. Therefore, we conclude:

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\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \text{ does not exist.}

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