But if the objective morality you just described is just the morality of the individual, doesn't that make it automatically subjective? If for example a murderer doesn't want to have his bodily ownership violated and doesn't consent to be taken to prison, does that make his arrest undesirable and wrong? And if it makes it undesirable and wrong only according to him but not to everyone else, doesn't that just make his morality subjective?
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Normally, yes, but this is always the case for all individuals. That takes it out of the realm of subjectivity, as it is always the case when discussing individual human beings. The fact that a murderer doesn't want his consent violated and considers it wrong illustrates that point; no individual can consent to having their consent violated.
However, one cannot simultaneously violate an ethic and appeal to that same ethic in one's defense, which is why a murderer has no grounds to protest being arrested for his crime. That's a separate axiom from what we were discussing, but it does apply here as well.
Like I said, this actually strengthens your case, as there is no morally consistent way in which assisted suicide could be immoral.