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RE: Do we have free will?

in #philosophy8 years ago

We have physical, objective evidence that death occurs but no non-physical, subjective evidence because living, even if you've temporarily died, means you haven't fully experienced it in the way we have physically seen others do so.

Conversely, I have subjective evidence that free will occurs because I feel like I can choose between sitting here typing or getting up and having a glass of water but I have no objective evidence that I have free will.

Perhaps life isn't the opposite of death and causality isn't the opposite of free will: free will is the opposite of Death; causality is the opposite of Life.

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We have physical, objective evidence that death occurs but no non-physical, subjective evidence because living, even if you've temporarily died, means you haven't fully experienced it in the way we have physically seen others do so.

Can you expand on this? I'm not sure I even understand what you're saying cause I think you missed a few words or something, the sentence doesn't seem to properly line up, either that or..I dunno.. But I just don't really get what you mean there.

but I have no objective evidence that I have free will.

Glad you agree there.

erhaps life isn't the opposite of death and causality isn't the opposite of free will: free will is the opposite of Death; causality is the opposite of Life.

Interesting thoughts. Perhaps, or perhaps in some cases there is no opposite.. Perhaps some things just are.

We know death occurs objectively because we can see dead people but we can't know anything about death subjectively because we're alive. Some people dismiss free will because we don't have objective evidence that it exists but we technically don't have any subjective evidence that death exists and nobody questions that death is a part of our experience, so why should we assume that a lack of objective evidence regarding free will means that it isn't a part of our experience?

We know death occurs objectively because we can see dead people but we can't know anything about death subjectively because we're alive. Some people dismiss free will because we don't have objective evidence that it exists but we technically don't have any subjective evidence that death exists and nobody questions that death is a part of our experience, so why should we assume that a lack of objective evidence regarding free will means that it isn't a part of our experience?

Thanks for clarifying. I don't disagree with any of that really. And I'm open minded to the idea that maybe there is no death in a subjective sense, like.. Maybe we go elsewhere or things start over like Groundhogs day or.. Who knows.. I dunno. I admit I don't. Many people seem to have a problem admitting when they don't know. Heh. Not me.