Well I'll start off by saying the word "God" in English is almost always used as a proper name, whereas the words theos (Greek, New Testament) and el (singular)/elohim (plural) (Hebrew, Old Testament) are not used that way. Both of these words are used to indicate something "godlike". It's almost more of a title than a proper name. So that's the main point in my explanation for numbers 10-5.
Number 4, Jesus was given the authority to judge by his Father (John 5:26-27), so by that fact he is acting under the authority of his Father to grant freedom and life. As far as saying, "I and the Father are one," we can look at the way people say the same thing about someone and their significant other. The Greek word heis does indicate it is a numeral, and not something relating to a concept of unity so this particular verse is something I can't "dismiss" but I will get into some more of why this doesn't bother me a little later.
Number 3, Again, the Greek word for blood haima lists in its definition as possibly being used figuratively or to indicate kindred. Jesus already calls YHVH his Father plenty of times so we have to at least consider this being used to indicate kin. Plenty of people call their family "their blood" in English as well, and we understand it doesn't literally mean they are talking about their own blood but a blood-tie through lineage/family.
Number 2, I Am in Greek is "ego" and "eimi". Ego is I, me, my and eimi means to be, or to exist. So even though it's easy to translate this Greek phrase to "I Am" it's easy to say it could be translated as "I existed" or "I was present". There's no refutation in this form me because I believe Jesus was the very first emanation of YHVH during creation so he was present during all of creation.
Number 1, Again, calling Jesus "theos" could possibly mean something other than identifying him as "God". If theos is used more as a title or honorific, it's simply the Father recognizing the importance of His son.
Now, to further expound on the idea of a fuzzy translation of the word theos as God with a specific meaning, you can read 2 Corinthians 4:4, "In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." At the beginning we see Paul talking about the "god of this world", Satan. The word "god" in this statement is the same one as that used at the end of the verse to describe Jesus as the "image of God", theos. So if we assume every time someone uses the word theos, they're indicating the Father, we have to read that Satan as well as Jesus is God, the Father.
Not only have you quoted plenty of places where the Father calls Jesus His son and where Jesus calls YHVH his Father, but there is also indication that Jesus is subject to the Father, and not equal. One of the clearest references for this is 1 Corinthians 15:28, "When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all." So at the end of things, the Father will reign over even Jesus and be in ultimate authority over everything.
There are a lot of other points to Jesus being a more literal son, but I don't want to go too crazy with this response. If you're interested to hear more about these points I can either go on or maybe I'll even work on a full post in response to your top ten list.
Overall though, I want to make the point known that my beliefs are in no way intended to belittle Jesus by saying he isn't "God", but it is to restore the ultimate superiority of the singular God of the Jewish people that Jesus himself was a disciple and teacher of.
Thanks. I appreciate such a detailed response.
The reason I'm sure which translation to use is the reaction of the Jewish leaders.
They all knew exactly who He was claiming to be -- and wanted to stone Him for it.